>
> I do NOT advocate Mormonism or the Book of Mormon.
>
>***Because "advocate" means publically proclaim. Right, you do not
>publically proclaim it with your name, you use Rabbi Yosef.
>
OK let me make this more clear. There are statements in the Book of Mormon
which I cannot reconcile with the Torah (reposted below). I do not accept
any book with conflicts with the Torah.
* Certain passages at least appear to be anti-nomian:
"...you must keep the performances
and ordinances of God until the law shall be fulfilled
which was given to Moses."
- 2Nephi 25:30 (supposedly between 559 & 545 BC)
(see also Alma 30:3)
"...but I say to you, that the time shall come
when it shall no more be expedient
to keep the law of Moses."
- Mosiah 13:27 (sopposedly in 148 BC)
"...the law in me is fulfilled,
for I have come to fulfil the law;
therefore it has an end."
- 3Nephi 15:5 (supposedly quoying "Jesus")
[right after the coming of "Christ"]
"And they did not walk anymore after the performances
and ordinances of the law of Moses..."
- 4Nephi 1:12
"...the law of circumcision is done away in me."
- Moroni 8:8 (supposedly quoting "Jesus")
* The book seems to depict traditional Christian practices
such as Communion [not Passover?] (3Nephi 20:1-9)
* The Book of Mormon calls the followers of the religion
it depicts "Christians" supposedly as early as 73 BC
(Alma 46:13-16).
* The BoM people supposedly came to the New World
and kept the law of Moses (2Ne. 25:24; Jarom 1:5; Mosiah 2:3;
Alma 30:3; 34:14) they supposedly built a Temple "after
the manner of Solomon" (2Ne. 5:16) and made offerings
(1Ne. 5:9; 7:22; Mosiah 2:3) Now how could a group of all
Josephites (1Ne. 15:12; 19:24; 2Ne. 3:2-5; Jacob 2:5 & Alma 26:36)
do that without any Levites? Maybe thay just did it theselves
(1Nephi 2:7) and appointed non-Levites as priests (2Ne. 5:26;
Jacob 1:18) but then who would say that a group of Josephites
who built their own Temple, performed their own offerrings
and appointed their own non-Levitical priests...
"...did observe to keep the judgements,
and the statutes, and the commandments of the Lord
IN ALL THINGS ACCORDING TO THE LAW OF MOSES"
(2Ne. 5:10)?
Even IF the Lord had told them to do such things would
it not be WAY beyond the realm of truth to say that
they were done "according to the law of Moses"?
* Also why would a group which kept the law of Moses
in all things build various Temples in various locations:
* "The Land of Nephi" (2Ne. 5:8, 16)
* "The Land of Zarahemla (Mosiah 1:18)
* "the Land Bountiful" (3Nephi 11:1)
And much of this time overlaps The Second Temple Era.
Compare Deut 12:21; 16:16 which teaches only one Temple
in one chosen place. How does that work?
* While the book is longer than the NT and is largely narative
it never mentions a Jewish/Biblical holiday by name. It also
never mentions a newmoon convocation, Nazarite vow etc.
This is suspicious.
* Although its people supposedly kept the Law of Moses until
the time of "Christ" the book places the death of "Christ"
on the "the first month, on the fourth day" (3Ne. 8:5)
though this day would have been Passover, the 14th day
of the month on the Biblical/Jewish calendar. In fact
Passover roughly coresponds with the full moon and would
be within a day of the 15th (on a newmoon based calendar)
or a day of the 1st (on any Fullmoon based calendar) So not only
is this supposed "BoM calendar" not the Biblical newmoon calendar
it could not even be a lunar calendar at all.
James Trimm
Study Torah with SANJ Mitvah Club
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